Rebbia's Post: The clamor of the dead silence

Antigua is always mentioned in a context of apprehension or sadness. Mrs. Norris fearfully anticipates the death of Thomas and Tom Bertram when they travel to Antigua until a letter confirms otherwise and later Edmund mentions the danger that Tom must have faced while he was in Antigua. Similarly, the Bertram daughters are gloomy when a letter from Antigua informs them of their father’s return that will eventually put an end to their shenanigans and lastly, when Sir Thomas pre-maturely arrives from Antigua, the enlivened atmosphere suddenly turns into sullen one.

However, the surprising change in Sir Thomas’ nature after his return from Antigua changes the context in which this colony is discussed as well. His return from Antigua not only makes him kinder towards Fanny and but also wiser as he starts recognizing the shallowness of Mrs. Norris which eventually results in her removal from Mansfield Park. He also mentions Antigua in a positive manner when he talks about the balls that were held there, contradicting the previously implied perspective of the place as being uncivil and even dangerous.

 Why is Antigua now mentioned in a positive context and why does this coincide with the positive change in Sir Thomas?

Known for using her novels to offer criticism on social issues, my reading of the colony in the novel leads me to conclude that Jane Austen has employed a similar method in Mansfield Park to express her disapproval for slavery. Slave trade in the British Empire was abolished around the same time that this novel was published. However, it is important to note here that even though slave trade was abolished slavery was still in practice and the English were still free to hold slaves in British colonies an example of which is Sir Thomas who owned slaves in Antigua. History tells us that this exercise too would soon end 30 years later meaning that following the slave trade act of 1807, Sir Thomas would have begun facing problems in his plantation in Antigua. This is buttressed by the facts that we are told of the ‘poor returns from Antigua’ and that ‘a large part of [Thomas’] income was unsettled’ earlier in the novel. In addition, Sir Thomas’ early arrival from the plantation may suggest that things had not been working there even though Sir Thomas’ own explanation is that his business was successful and so that is why he could afford to come early. Why then is there dead silence when Fanny questions her uncle about the slave trade?

According to my reading, Austen expresses her disapproval for slavery by punishing Sir Thomas for owning slaves as when his plantation ceases to yield profitable returns he realizes that he will soon lose his colony. Moreover, Sir Thomas faces a number of obstacles after his return from Antigua as both his daughters elope with their lovers bringing disgrace to the family and his son, Tom, becomes grievously ill due to his profligate ways. This makes Sir Thomas see the errors in his ways (read owning slaves) and Austen allows Sir Thomas to redeem himself in that following all difficulties he becomes more human and hence is able to extend kindness to both Fanny, the metaphorical slave, and Antigua, the actual slave.